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June 20, 2007

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PeteSmith

Here's my question: If the statute appears to provide for the possibility for the judge to undertake a defamation action (an increasing phenomenon - see http://www.law.com/jsp/law/LawArticleFriendly.jsp?id=1182416757114), how would the allegedly injured judge[s] be able to overcome Colorado's SLAPP statute and/or the Sovereign Witness Immunity Doctrine?

Colorado's SLAPP statute, best memorialized in Protect Our Mountain Env't, Inc. v. District Court, 677 P.2d 1361 (Colo. 1984) and Scott v. Hern, 216 F.3d 897 (10th Cir. 2000) immunizes any petitioning activity (such as filing a grievance with Wehmhoefer's Commission for the Abolition on Judicial Discipline), unless said filing falls in the narrow crack known as the sham exception (petitioning devoid of any basis in either fact or law). See also Columbia v. Omni Outdoor Advertising, Inc., 499 US 365 (1991); Pring, SLAPPs: Lawsuits Against Public Participation, 7 Pace Envtl. L. Rev. 3 (1989).

Further, isn't a complainant considered a complaining witness (under Briscoe v. LaHue, 460 U.S. 325 (1983)) for any and all statements made in the course of petitioning (affidavits, in court testimony, pleadings, etc.)? See Hoffler v. Colo. Dept. of Corrections, 27 P.3d 371, 373-74 (colo. 2001) (collecting cases concerning privileges and immunities of parties, witnesses and others involved in litigation). See also Burns v. Reed, 500 U.S. 478 (1991) (Justice Scalia concurring in part, dissenting in part); J. Townshend, Slander and Libel 347-367 (2d ed. 1872).

So, exactly how would a judge be in a position to sue a complainant?

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